It strikes me as implausible that people riot because of welfare dependence, but then one may refer to greece this year. But in the same way cant we say that the greek riots were never about cutbacks to pensions at all, but always about the fact that economic sovereignty was so far removed from a populace that would have upheld pensions? While I think its a bit muddled to say "neoliberalism = marginalised = riots" i think there are a few tenets I'd hold true as a basis for any exploration I'd make:a. in our current climate people are foreclosed from leveling positive, productive and articulate opposition to our current socio-economic configuration, ergo, any political act will be construed as destructive and misguided by the powers that be, regardless.b. england has just witnessed unprecedented cutbacks to education funding, which is really the only mechanism that remains to affect social mobility.c. these cutbacks were in order to socialise the losses made by bankers. the effects of the gfc have been disproportionately borne by the poorer classes.d. the question is never 'why' because a reason is always at hand, the question must always be 'why there, why now?"